HCIA-Datacom v1.0 v1.3

1. When a host uses the IP address 192.168.1.
2 to access the Internet, NAT must be

performed
True
False
2. The priority of static routes cannot be manually specified.
True
False
3. IPv6 uses NS and NA packets to perform duplicate address detection (DAD).
True
False
4. Link aggregation and stacking technologies can be used to enhance network reliability
on a campus network.
True
False
5. If the transport-layer protocol is UDP, the value of the “Protocol” field at the network
layer is 6
True
False
6. Ethernet frames are processed and forwarded in a switch based on their VLAN tags
True
False
7. The following configuration commands implement route backup on RTA for a route to
the same destination 10.1.1.0.
True
False
8. The ARP protocol can resolve the MAC address of a destination device from the
corresponding destination IP address, mapping the MAC address and IP address.
True
False
9. When forwarding a data packet, a router needs to change the destination IP address of
the packet
True
False
10. NAPT differentiates IP addresses of different users based on protocol ID in TCP, UDP,
or IP packets.
True
False
11. Which of the following parameters is not used by Advanced ACL?
A. Source interface.
B. Destination port number
C. Protocol number
D. Time-range
12. Which of the following commands is used to display the OSPF neighbor relationship
establishment?
A. display ospf neighbor

B. display ospf brief
C. display ospf peer
D. display ospf interface
13. Which of the following statements about static routes on Huawei devices is false?
A. The preference value of a static route is in the range 1 to 255.

B. The default preference value of a static route is 60.
C. The cost of a static route cannot be changed.
D. When the preference value of a static route is 0, this static route selected as the optimal
route.
14. As shown in the figure, STP is enabled on both switches. Which port is in Blocking
state?
A. G0/0/3 of SWA
B. G0/0/2 of SWA
C. G0/0/3 of SWB**
D. G0/0/2 of SWB
15. On VRP, the command lines are classified into four levels in increasing priority. Visit
level, Monitoring level, and Management level. At which level, the operator is permitted to
configure service but is not permitted to operate the file system?
A. Visit level
B. Monitoring level
C. Configuration level
D. Management level
16. In the following figure, all links are Ethernet links, and all interfaces on the routers are
running OSPF. Given this, how many DRs will be elected on this network?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
17. What is the default step of the ACLs on AR G3 series routers?
A. 5
B. 15
C. 20
D. 10**
18. Which of the following statements regarding the “port trunk allow-pass vlan all”
command is true?
A. The specified port allows all VLAN IDs to pass through.

B. The peer port connected to this port must have the same port trunk allow-pass vlan all
command configured.
C. The peer device connected to this port can dynamically determine which VLAN IDs are
allowed to pass through
D. If the port default vlan 3 command is run on the connected remote device. VLAN 3 will be
blocked between the two devices.
19. If the MAC address of an interface is 00E0-FCEF-0FEC, the corresponding EUI-64
address is ( ).
A. 02E0-FCFF-FEEF-0FEC**
B. 02E0-FCEF-FFFE-0FEC
C. 00E0-FCFF-FEEF-0FEC
D. 00E0-FCEF-FFFE-0FEC
20. A network administrator has been assigned the IP address segment 192.168.176.0/25,
from which he/she must allocate a subnet to support 20 users in the marketing
department. Which IP subnet best supports this requirement?
A. 192.168.176.0/25
B. 192.168.176.0/30
C. 192.168.176.48/29
D. 192.168.176.96/27
21. What is the function of the interface vlan command on the VRP platform?
A. Creates a VLAN
B. Creates a VLAN virtual interface or enters a VLAN virtual interface view.
C. Configures a VLAN for an interface.
D. This command is not supported.
22. Which of the following does not change for Aps associated with a STA during WLAN
roaming?
A. ESS
B. BSS
C. BSSID
D. VLAN
23. Which of the following is the preference of a direct route?
A. 0
B. 10
C. 20
D. 30
24. What is the number range of an advanced ACL?
A. 2000-2999
B. 3000-3999
C. 4000-4999
D.6000-6031
25. The following figure shows the configuration of a sub-interface on a router. For which
VLAN does the sub-interface receive tagged data frames?
#
Interface GigabitEthernet0/0/2.80
Dot1q termination vid 100
Ip address 10.0.21.1 255.255.255.0
arp broadcast enable
#
A. 1
B. 20
C. 30
D. 100**
26. Which of the following protocols can be used to prevent Layer 2 loops on a campus
network?
A. RSTP
B. OSPF
C. NAT
D. SNMP
27. A company applies for a class C IP address for subnetting, it has eight branches. The
largest branch has a subnet and should support at least 14 host. What would be an
appropriate subnet mask?
A. 255.255.255.0
B. 255.255.255.128
C. 255.255.255.192
D. 255.255.255.224
28. How many classes of services (CoSs) can data streams be identified based on the
MPLS label?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 8**
D. 16
29. Refer to the following MAC address table of a switch. Which of the following
statements is true?
A. When the switch restarts, the MAC address learned by Eth0/0/3 needs to be relearned.
B. When the switch restarts, the MAC address learned by Eth0/0/2 does not need to be
relearned.
C. The switch forwards the data frame with the source MAC address 5489-9811-0b49 and
destination MAC address 5489-989d-1d30 through Eth0/0/2.
D. The switch forwards the data frame with the source MAC address 5489-9885-18a8 and
destination MAC address 5489-989d-1d30 through Eth0/0/1.
30. Which of the following IPv4 addresses can be directly used by a host to access the
internet?
A. 192.168.1.1/24
B. 10.255.255.254/24
C. 172.16.255.254/24
D. 172.32.1.1/24**
31. Which of the following is not included in the routing table?
A. Destination/Mask
B. Cost
C. Next-hop address
D. MAC
32. Refer to the graphic. Which of the following statements describes the network
shown?
A. There are 6 collision domains in the network.

B. There are 2 broadcast domains in the network.
C. There are 4 collision domains in the network.
D. There are 6 broadcast domains in the network.
33. In the network shown in the following figure, a switch needs to use a VLANIF
interface to connect to a sub-interface of a router. Which of the following configurations
can meet this requirement?
A. interface Vlanif10
Ip address 10.0.12.1 255.255.255.0
#
Interface GigabitEthernet0/0/2
Port link-type trunk
Port trunk allow-pass vlan 10
#
B. interface Vlanif10
Ip address 10.0.12.1 255.255.255.0
#
Interface Gigabitethernet0/0/2
Port link-type access
Port default vlan 10
#
C. interface Vlanif10
Ip address 10.0.12.1 255.255.255.0
#
Port trunk pvid 10
#
D. interface Vlanif10
Ip address 10.0.12.1 255.255.255.0
#
Port link-type hybrid
Port hybrid untag vlan 10
#
34. FTP may be used to upgrade a router’s VRP image. Which of the following
transmission modes should be used to achieve this?
A. Binary mode
B. ASCII mode
C. Byte mode
D. Letter mode
35. Refer to the following configuration of an interface on a switch. What is the PVID of
the interface?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 100**
36. When a host moves frequently, which of the following VLAN assignment modes is the
most appropriate?
A. Port-based VLAN assignment

B. IP subnet-based VLAN assignment**
C. Policy-based VLAN assignment
D. MAC address-based VLAN assignment
37. Assuming that OSPF has been enabled on all routers in the following figure, which
router is the DR on this network?
A. Router A**
B. Router B
C. Router C
38. On Huawei routers, which of the following is the default internal preference of OSPF?
A. 0
B. 10
C. 20
D. 30
39. Which type of IPv6 address is FE80::2E0:FCFF:FE6F:4F36?
A. Link-local address
B. Multicast addresses
C. Global unicast address
D. Anycast address
40. As shown in the figure, the administrator requires that all hosts cannot access the
Internet during 8:00-17:00 every day. In this case, which ACL rule needs to be found to
traffic-filter outbound in the interface configuration of G0/0/1?
A. time-range am9topm5 08:00 to 17:00 daily

#
Acl-number 2001
Rule 5 deny time-range am9topm5
B. time-range am9topm5 08:00 to 17:00 daily
#
Acl number 2002
Rule 5 permit time-range am9topm5
#
C. time-range am9topm5 08:00 to working-day

#
Acl number 2003
rule 5 deny time-range am9topm5
#
D. time-range am9topm5 08:00 to 17:00 off-day

#
Acl number 2004
rule 5 permit time-range
#
41. Refer to the following display ip routing-table command output on the router R1.
Which of the following statements are true? (Multiple Answers)
A. The next hop of the route from R1 to 10.0.0.1 is 10.0.12.2.

B. The next hop of the route from R1 to 10.0.2.1 is 10.0.21.2
C. The next hop of the route from R1 to 10.0.2.2 is 10.0.12.2
D. The next hop of the route from R1 to 10.0.2.2 is 10.0.21.2
42. Refer to the following display vlan command output on SWA. Which of the following
statements are true?
A. Four VLANs are manually created
B. When sending data frames from VLAN 10, GE0/0/1 of the switch does not add VLAN tags to
the data frames.
C. When sending data frames from VLAN 20, GE0/0/1 of the switch does not add VLAN tags to
the data frames.
D. When sending data frames from VLAN 20, GE0/0/2 of the switch adds VLAN tags to the data
frames.
43. Which of the following statements about the routing table shown in the figure are
true? (Multiple Answers)
A. The next hop in the route destination network 10.0.3.3/32 is not directly connected.
Therefore, the local router does not forward data packets destined for 10.0.3.3. (Multiple
Answers)
B. The local router forwards data packets destined for 10.0.3.3 from Ethernet0/0/0.
C. The local router forwards data packet destined for 10.0.2.2 from Ethernet0/0/0.
D. The local router forwards data packets destined for 10.0.12.1 from Ethernet0/0/0.
44. Which of the following statements about the process of establishing a PPP link are
false? (Multiple Answers)**
A. The physical layer is unavailable during the Dead phase. When two communicating
devices detect that the physical link between them is activated. PPP enters the Establish
phase from the Dead phase.
B. In the Establish phase, the two devices perform LCP negotiation over a PPP link. This is
done to negotiate the maximum receive unit (MRU), authentication mode, and magic number.
C. In the Network phase, the two devices perform NCP negotiation. This is done to select and
configure network layer protocol and to negotiate network layer parameters.
D. After NCP negotiation is successful, the PPP link maintains the communication state
and enters the Terminate phase.
E. The PPP link can work in half-duplex or full-duplex mode.
45. If the value of Length/Type in an Ethernet data frame is 0x8100, from which of the
following interfaces can data frames be sent? (Multiple Answers)**
A. Access interface of a switch

B. Trunk interface of a switch*
C. Serial interface of a switch
D. Hybrid interface of a switch*
46. Which of the following parts compose SNMP? (Multiple Answers)**
A. NMS
B. Agent process
C. Managed object
D. Management Information Base (MIB)
47. As shown in the figure, Router A has the following configurations. Which of the
following statements are true? (Multiple Answers)
Ip route-static 10.0.2.2 255.255.255.255 10.0.12.2

Ip route-static 10.0.2.2 255.255.255.255 10.0.21.2 preference 40
A. In the routing table of Router A, the outbound interface of the route to 10.0.2.2 is G0/0/1.
B. In the routing table of Router A, the outbound interface of the route to 10.0.2.2 is G0/0/2.
C. If G0/0/1 goes Down, the outbound interface of the route to 10.0.2.2 is changed to G0/0/2 in
the routing table of Router A.
D. If G0/0/2 goes Down, the outboumd interface of the route to 10.0.2.2 is changed to G0/0/1 in
the routing table of Router A.
48. Which of the following methods can be used to assign service VLANs during campus
network planning? (Multiple Answers)**
A. VLAN assignment by geographic area

B. VLAN assignment by logical area
C. VLAN assignment by personnel structure
D. VLAN assignment by service type
49. Which of the following statements are incorrect? (Multiple Answers)**

PPP
A. The preferences for each static routes entry can be different
B. By default, OSPF maintains preference over RIP
C. The greater the cost, the better the route is.
D. For those routes to the same destination on VRP platform, the route with a higher preference
value is more preferred over the route with a lower preference value.
50. Which of the following packets are exchanged between STAs and an AP to obtain the
AP’s SSID before association with the AP? (Multiple Answers)
A. Probe Request
B. Probe Response
C. Beacon
D. Discovery
51. When configuring the PPP authentication method as PAP, which of the following
operations are necessary? (Multiple Answers)**
A. Add the user name and password of the authenticator party to the local user list.
B. Configure the encapsulation type of the interface connected to the peer as PPP.
C. Configure PPP authentication method as CHAP
D. On the authenticated end, configure the user name and password that are sent to
authenticator.
52. After an Eth-Trunk in LACP mode is created, devices on both ends send LACPDUs to
elect the Actor. Which of the following parameters in LACPDUs determine the Actor
election? (Multiple Answers)**
A. Device Priority
B. MAC address
C. Interface Priority
D. Interface Number
53. Which of the following network types are supported by OSPF? (Multiple Answers)
A. Broadcast
B. Point-to-point (P2P)
C. NBMA
D. Point-to-multipoint (P2MP)
54. After receiving a Join Request packet from an AP during CAPWAP tunnel setup, an
AC checks the validity of the AP. Which of the following authentication modes are
supported by the AC? (Multiple Answers)
A. MAC address authentication

B. SN authentication
C. No authentication
D.
55. An ACL rule is as follows. Which of the following IP addresses can be matched by the
permit rule? (Multiple Answers)
Rule 5 permit ip source 10.0.2.0 0.0.254.255
A. 10.0.2.1
B. 10.0.4.5
C. 10.0.5.6
D. 10.0.6.7
56. Which of the following statements regarding single area OSPF are correct? (Multiple
Answers)**
A. An IP address needs to be configured on a loopback interface of each router before

configuring an OSPF area.
B. The value of an area can be from 0.0.0.0 to 255.255.255.255
C. A single area can be configured using any supported area number.
D. All of the links of the network need to be advertised in Area 0
57. Which of the following application-layer protocols are based on TCP? (Multiple
Answers)**
A. Ping
B. TFTP
C. FTP
D. HTTP packet
58. As shown in the following figure, the router uses a sub interface as the gateway of
the host and the IP address of the gateway is 10.0.12.2. Which of the following
commands can be used to meet this requirement?
A. interface GigabitEthernet0/0/0.20
Dot1q termination vid 20
Ip address 10.0.12.2 255.255.255.0
Arp broadcast enable
#
59. Which of the following are not main functions of routers? (Multiple Answers)**
A. Routers forward data packets based on source IP addresses.

B. Routers learn routes through multiple routing protocols and add them to the routing table.
C. Routers enable devices on the same network segment to communicate with each other.
D. Routers forward data packets according to routing tables.
60. Which of the following are layer 2 ACLs? (Multiple Answers)**
A. rule 10 permit l2-protocol arp

B. rule 15 permit vlan id 100
C. rule 20 permit source mac 0203-0405-0607
D. rule 25 permit source 192.168.1.1 0.0.0.0
61. If Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) is disabled on the network consisting of switches, a
Layer 2 loop will definitely occur.
True
False
62. As shown in the figure, the host has ARP cache. Host A sends a data packet to host
B. Which of the following are the destination MAC address and destination IP address of
the data packet?
A. MAC -A, 11.0.12.1

B. MAC -B, 11.0.12.1
C. MAC -C, 11.0.12.1
D. MAC -C, 10.0.12.2
63. Refer to the following configuration of an interface on a switch. For which VLAN does
the interface remove VLAN tags before forwarding data frames?
A. 10
B. 20
C. 30
D. 40
64. When an Ethernet frame is received by an interface on a Layer 2 Ethernet switch,

which field is used to generate an entry in the MAC address table?
A. Source MAC address

B. Destination MAC address
C. Source IP address
D. Destination IP address
65. Which one of the following methods cannot be used by a Fit AP to obtain the IP
address of an AC for going online?**
A. Broadcast
B. DHCP Option
C. Statically specified on the AP
D. Multicast
66. On the network shown in the figure, the ports connecting switch A and switch B to
hosts belong to VLAN 10 and VLAN 20 respectively. The ports through which the
switches are interconnected are trunk ports, and the PVIDs of the ports are 10 and 20,
respectively. Which of the following statements are true?
A. Host A and Host B belong to different VLANs and cannot ping each other
B. Host A and Host B can ping each other
C. When the data frames sent by the hosts are forwarded between the switches, the frames are
untagged.
D. ARP requests from host A cannot be forwarded to host B.
67. In RSTP mode, interfaces in the Discarding state discard received data frames but
maintain the MAC address table based on received data frames.
True
False
68. When redundant links exist on a switching network, STP can be used to eliminate
loops.**
True
False
69. On a network running STP, the root switch is elected only by comparing switch
priorities. On a network running RSTP, both the priorities and MAC address of switches
will be compared for electing the root switch.
True
False
70. If AAA authentication is used on Huawei devices and the remote server does not
respond, the authentication can be performed on network devices.
True
False
71. Refer to the grapic. OSPF is used on four routers that are in the same area and on the
same network segment. In this scenario, OSPF selects one DR and multiple BDRs to
ensure backup.
True
False
72. The broadcast address of the network segment 192.168.1.0/25 is 192.168.1.128.
True
False
73. The country code configuration affects the actual transmission frequency and
maximum transmission power.
True
False
74. Which of the following statements is true after the ACL shown in the figure is
configured on RTA?
A. Versatile Routing Platform (VRP) adjusts the sequence number of the first rule to 5 according
to the configuration sequence.
B. VRP does not adjust the sequence numbers of rules, but first matches packets against the
rule “permit source 20.1.1.0 0.0.0.255”
C. The configuration is incorrect because the sequence numbers of rules must be configured in
ascending order.
D. VRP matches packets against the rule “deny source 20.1.1.0 0.0.0.255” first according to the
rule sequence number.
75. Refer to the grapic, which of the following statements is true about OSPF topology
and configuration?
A. A stable OSPF neighbor relationship can be set between R1 and R2.
B. After the default network type of the interface on R1 is restored to broadcast, a stable OSPF
neighbor relationship can be set up between R1 and R2.
C. After the default network type of the interface on R1 is restored to broadcast and the hello
packet sending interval is changed to 10s, a stable OSPF neighbor relationship can be set up
between R1 and R2.
D. Compared with R1, R2 is more likely to become the DR because the DR priority of the
interface on R2 is lower than that of R1.
76. Refer to the following figure of the ACL configured on a router. Which of the following
statements is true?
A. The data packets with the source IP address 192.168.1.1 match the permit rule
B. The data packets with the source IP address 192.168.1.1 or 192.168.1.254 match the permit
rule.
C. The data packets with the source IP address 192.168.1.1 match the deny rule
D. The data packets with the source IP address 192.168.1.254 match the permit rule
77. Which of the following statements is true about active interface election for an Eth-
Trunk in LACP mode?
A. Only interface priorities are compared

B. Only interface numbers are compared
C. Interface priorities are compared first. If priorities of interfaces on the Actor are the same,
interfaces with smaller interface numbers are elected as active interfaces.
D. Device priorities are compared
78. Which of the following statements about hybrid interfaces is true?
A. Hybrid interfaces do not require PVIDs.

B. Hybrid interfaces receive only data frames with VLAN tags.
C. Hybrid interfaces must carry VLAN tags when sending data frames.
D. Hybrid interfaces can remove VLAN tags from some outgoing VLAN frames.
79. Which of the following parameters is not contained in STP configuration BPDUs?
A. Root ID
B. Bridge ID
C. Port ID
D. VLAN ID
80. On the network shown in the figure, HOST A and HOST B are required to
communicate with each other across VLANs through one-armed routing. To satisfy this
requirement, which of the following commands needs to be performed on G0/0/1.1 of
RTA?
A. dot1q termination vid 1

B. dot1q termination vid 10
C. dot1q termination vid 20
D. dot1q termination vid 30
81. During STP calculation, the port cost is associated with the port bandwidth by
default. Which of the following statements about the relationship between per cost and
port bandwidth is true?
A. A higher port bandwidth indicates a smaller port cost.

B. A higher port bandwidth indicates a larger port cost.
C. The port bandwidth is equal to the port cost.
D. The port cost varies randomly according to port bandwidth.
82. Assuming all STP enabled switches have the same bridge priority. The MAC address
of switch A is 00-e0-fc-00-00-40, the MAC address of switch B is 00-e0-fc-00-00-10, the
MAC address of switch C is 00-e0-fc-00-00-20, and the MAC address of switch D is 00-e0-
fc-00-00-80. Which switch will be elected as the root switch?
A. Switch A
B. Switch B
C. Switch C
D. Switch D
82. As shown in the following figure, users on the network where HOST A resides need to
access the Internet through Easy IP. Which of the following ACLs needs to be configured
on G0/0/1 of Router A?**
A. acl number 2000

Rule 5 permit source 10.0.13.0 0.0.0.255
#
B. acl number 2000
#
C. acl number 2000
#
D. acl number 2000
83. In the following figure, after OSPF is enabled on the two routers, the administrator
configures the <silent -interface s0/0/0> command on RTA. Given this, which of the
following statements are true?
A. RTA continues to receive, analyze, and process the OSPF packets sent
B. The OSPF neighbor relationship between the two routers goes down
C. The OSPF neighbor relationship between the two routers is not affected
D. RTA no longer sends OSPF packets
84. Assuming that all hosts in the following figure can communicate with each other,
which of the following shows the correct mappings between MAC addresses and
interfaces in the MAC address table of SWA?
A. MAC -A G0/0/1
MAC -B G0/0/2
MAC -C G0/0/3
B. MAC -A G0/0/1
MAC -B G0/0/1
MAC -C G0/0/3
C. MAC -A G0/0/2
MAC -B G0/0/2
MAC -C G0/0/3
D. MAC -A G0/0/1
MAC -B G0/0/2
MAC -C G0/0/1
85. Assuming that SWA is just started and its MAC address table is empty,.. destination
MAC address of MAC -B, which of the following statements..
A. SWA discards the data frame
B. SWA forwards the data frame through G0/0/2
C. SWA forwards the data frame through G0/0/3
D. The switch floods the data frame
86. The configuration order (config) is the default matching order for ACL rules on
Huawei devices.
True
False
87. Refer to the graphic, 00e0-fc99-9999 is a specific host MAC address learned by a
switch through ARP and the host changes the IP address three times.
True
False
88. Refer to the grapic. OSPF is used on four routers that are in the same area and on the
same network segment. In this scenario, OSPF selects one DR and multiple BDRs to
ensure backup.
True
False
89. RSTP uses the proposal/agreement mechanism to shorten the time that an upstream
port waits before transitioning to the forwarding state, but no temporary loop occurs.
Why?
A. RSTP uses a synchronization mechanism to prevent temporary loops

B. RSTP shortens the time taken by port status transition (Forward Delay)
C. RSTP accelerates port role election
D. RSTP introduces the edge port role
90. Which of the following modes allow APs to obtain the system software package from
an AC for upgrade?
A. AC mode
B. FTP mode
C. SFTP mode
D. TFTP mode
91. Which of the following are true about the Ethernet data frame with the “Length/Type”
field being 0x0806
A. The data frame is an Ethernet II frame

B. The data frame is an IEEE 802.3 frame
C. The destination MAC address of the data frame must be FFFF-FFFF-FFFF
D. The source MAC address of the data frame is definitely not FFFF-FFFF-FFFF
92. The following figure shows the configuration on G0/0/1 of Router A. Which of the
#
Acl number 3000
Rule 5 deny 17
Rule 10 deny 89
Rule 15 deny 6
#
Traffic-filter inbound acl 3000
#
A. This interface can establish OSPF neighbor relationships with other routers.
B. This interface does not forward received FTP packets.
C. This interface does not forward received SNMP packets.
D. This interface does not forward ICMP packets.
93. On the network shown in the following figure, assuming that SWA, SWB, and SWC
retain factory defaults, which of the following ports will be selected as a designated port?
A. G0/0/1 on SWB
B. G0/0/1 on SWC
C. G0/0/2 on SWC
D. G0/0/3 on SWA
94. Which of the following statements about SNMP versions are true?
A. SNMPv3 packets can be authenticated and encrypted.

B. SNMPv2c packets can be authenticated and encrypted.
C. SNMPv2c adds two more operations to the five protocol operations defined in SNMPv1.
D. SNMPv1 uses UDP as the transport layer protocol, whereas SNMPv2c and SNMPc3 use
TCP as the transport layer protocol. Therefore, SNMPv1 is more reliable.
95. Virtualization is the foundation of Network Functions Virtualization (NFV). Which of

the following statements correctly describe virtualization?
A. Multiple VMs can concurrently run on a single physical server.

B. VMs on the same physical server are isolated from each other.
C. VMs are decoupled from hardware and can be migrated between servers.
D. VMs run on the same operating system and are separated by namespaces.
96. Refer to the network shown in the following figure. All routers are running OSPF, and
the numbers such as 10, 20, 50 and 100 are the link costs. What is the cost of the route to
the network 10.0.0.0/8 in the RTA routing table?
A. 20
B. 70
C. 60
D. 100
97. Virtualization is the foundation of Network Functions Virtualization (NFV). Which of

the following statements correctly describe virtualization?
A. Multiple VMs can concurrently run on a single physical server.

B. VMs on the same physical server are isolated from each other.
C. VMs are decoupled from hardware and can be migrated between servers.
D. VMs run on the same operating system and are separaSTP-enable803ted by namespaces.
98. Which of the following statements correctly describe the control plane of a device?**
A. The control plane implements interaction of routing protocols between devices.

B. The control plane instructs data forwarding.
C. The control plane provides the device monitoring capability.
D. The controller plane generates IP routing tables.
99. In which of the following scenarios does the Forward Delay timer exist?
A. The STP-enabled port transitions from Disabled to Blocking.

B. The STP-enabled port transitions from Blocking to Listening.
C. The STP-enabled port transitions from Listening to Learning.
D. The STP-enabled port transitions from Learning to Forwarding.
E. The STP-enabled port transitions from Forwarding to Disabled.
100. The following figure shows the display stp brief command output on a switch
running STP. Which of the following statements about the command output is false?
A. The network may contain only one switch.
B. The switch is the root switch on the network
C. The priority of the switch is 0
D. The switch may be connected to six other switches
101. The following figure shows the MAC address table of a switch. Assuming that the
switch receives a data frame with the destination MAC address 5489-9885-18a8 from
Eth0/0/2, which of the following statements is true?
A. The switch forwards the data frame through Eth0/0/2

B. The switch forwards the data frame through Eth0/0/1
C. The switch floods the data frame.
D. The switch discards the data frame.
102. On the network shown in the figure, the router receives a data packet with the
destination IP address 11.0.12.1 from host A. After the packet is forwarded by the router,
which of the following are the destination MAC address and destination IP address of the
data packet?
A. MAC -B 11.0.12.1
B. MAC -D 11.0.12.1
C. MAC -C 11.0.12.1
D. MAC -D 10.0.12.2
103. On a Layer 2 WLAN, STAs use an AC as their gateway.
True
False
104. The IP addresses of VLANIF interfaces on the same switch must be different.
True
False
105. On an interface that uses PPP as the data link layer protocol, you can configure a
static route by specifying a next-hop address or outbound interface.**
True
False
106. A switch receives a unicast data frame with a VLAN tag, but cannot find the
destination MAC address of the data from the MAC address table. In this case, which
action will the switch take?**
A. The switch broadcasts the data frame on all interfaces.

B. The switch broadcasts the data frame on all interfaces (except that on which it was received)
in the VLAN to which the data frame was received.
C. The switch broadcasts the data frame on all access interfaces.
D. The switch discards the data frame.
107. Which of the following is a valid default route configuration?**
A. [Huawei] ip route-static 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.1.1

B. [Huawei] ip route-static 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 192.168.1.1
C. [Huawei-Serial0] ip route-static 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0
D. [Huawei] ip route-static 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0
108. After link authentication is complete, a STA initiates link service negotiation. Which
of the following packets is used for negotiation?**
A. Negotiate
B. Association
C. Join
D. Handshake
109. Refer to the graphic, after the ping 10.1.1.2 command is executed on R1, LSW1
receives a tagged data frame from VLAN 10 on LSW2.**
True
False
110. The country code configuration affects the actual transmission frequency and
maximum transmission power.**
True
False
111. By the time two OSPF-enabled routers have established a 2-way neighbor
relationship, LSDB synchronization has been completed.**
True
False
112. Refer to the following configuration of an interface on a switch. For which VLAN
does the interface remove VLAN tags before forwarding data frames?**
#
Port trunk pvid vlan 10
Port trunk allow-pass vlan 10 20 30 40
#
A. 10
B. 20
C. 30
D. 40
113. Which of the following IEEE 802.11. standards supports a theoretical negotiated rate
of 5 Gbits/s or higher?
A. 802.11n
B. 802.11ax
C. 802.11a
D. 802.11b
114. The following figure shows the display interface Eth-Trunk 1 command output on a
switch. Which of the following commands can be used to delete Eth-Trunk 1?
A. inte GigabitEthernet 0/0/1

Undo eth-trunk
Quit
Inte GigabitEthernet 0/0/2
Undo eth-trunk
Quit
Undo interface Eth-Trunk 1
B. undo interface Eth-Trunk 1
C. inte GigabitEthernet 0/0/1
Undo eth-trunk
Quit
Undo interface eth-trunk 1
D. inte GigabitEthernet 0/0/2
Undo eth-trunk
Quit
Undo interface Eth-trunk 1
115. Which of the following IEEE 802.11 standards does not support the 5 GHz frequency
band?
A. 802.11n
B. 802.11ac Wave 1
C. 802.11ac Wave 2
D. 802.11g
116. When IPv4 is used as the network layer protocol, which of the following fields is not
contained in the network layer header?
A. Source IPv4 Address

B. Destination IPv4 Address
C. TTL
D. Sequence Number
117. Which of the following statements correctly describes the effect of configuring the
ACL in the following figure on a Telnet server?
A. The device with an IP address of 172.16.105.3 can use the Telnet service
B. The device with an IP address of 172.16.105.4 can use the Telnet service.
C. The device with an IP address of 172.16.105.5 can use the Telnet service.
D. The device with an IP address of 172.16.105.6 can use the Telnet service
118. The users who log on the router through Telnet are not permitted to configure IP
address. What is the possible reason?
A. Communication failures occur between the user and the router.

B. The authentication mode of Telnet is set incorrectly.
C. Privilege level of Telnet is set incorrectly.
D. SNMP parameters are set incorrectly.
119. On the network shown in the figure, router A adopts link aggregation in manual load
balancing mode, and G0/0/1 and G0/0/2 are added to link aggregation group (LAG) 1.
Which of the following statements is false about Eth-Trunk 1 on router A.
A. If only G0/0/1 on router B is disabled. Eth-Trunk 1 is Up.
B. If only G0/0/2 on router B is disabled. Eth-Trunk 1 is Up.
C. If both G0/0/1 and G0/0/2 on router B are disabled, Eth-Trunk 1 is Up.
D. If both G0/0/1 and G0/0/2 on router B are disabled, Eth-Trunk 1 is Down.
120. The users who log on the router through Telnet are not permitted to configure IP
addresses. What is the possible reason?**
A. Communication failures occur between the user and the router.

B. The authentication mode of Telnet is set incorrectly.
C. Privilege level of Telnet is set incorrectly.
D. SNMP parameters are set incorrectly.
121. Which of the following information is displayed when an entered command is

incomplete on the Versatile Routing Platform (VRP)?**
A. Error:Incomplete command found at ‘^’ position

B. Error:Too many parameters found at ‘^’ position
C. Error:Ambiguous command found at ‘^’ position
D. Error:Wrong parameter found at ‘^’ position
122. On Huawei routers, which of the following is the default preference of static
routing?**
A. 0
B. 60
C. 100
D. 120
123. If the network administrator assigns the IPv4 address 192.168.1.1/28 to a host on the
network, how many hosts can be added to the network where the host resides?
A. 12
B. 13
C. 14
D. 15
124. Which of the following statements about MPLS labels is false?

A. A label is a short, fixed-length identifier that is only locally significant.
B. A label uniquely identifies a forwarding equivalence class (FEC) to which a data packet
belongs.
C. Labels are encapsulated between the network layer and transport layer.
D. A label does not contain topology information. It is carried in the header of a packet.
125. By referring to the routing table of the router R1 shown in the figure, which of the
following statements are true? (Multiple Answers)
A. The router discards the data packets destined for 11.0.0.0/8.

B. The router forwards the data packets destined for 12.0.0.0/8.
C. The router forwards the data packets destined for 11.0.0.0/8 from GigabitEthernet0/0/0..
D. The router forwards the data packets destined for 12.0.0.0/8 from Ethernet0/0/0.
126. Assuming that all routers in the following figure are running OSPF, which routers
are ABRs?**
A. Router A
B. Router B
C. Router C
D. Router D
128. Refer to the following display ip routing-table command output on the router R1.
Which of the following statements are true?
A. The outbound interface from R1 to 10.0.0.1 is Ethernet0/0/0.
B. The outbound interface from R1 to 10.0.0.1 is Ethernet0/0/1.
C. The outbound interface from R1 to 10.0.2.2 is Ethernet0/0/0.
D. The outbound interface from R1 to 10.0.2.2 is Ethernet0/0/1.
129. Which of the following methods can be used to assign service VLANs during
campus network planning?
A. VLAN assignment by geographic area

B. VLAN assignment by logical area
C. VLAN assignment by personnel structure
D. VLAN assignment by service type
130. Typical network forwarding is based on routing tables. OpenFlow-capable switches

forward packets based on flow tables. Which of the following statements correctly
describe these two forwarding modes?**
A. A routing table has fixed fields. A device has only one public routing table.
B. A flow table has fixed fields. A network device has only one flow table.
C. According to a routing table, packets will be forwarded using the route to the destination
network segment and with the longest mask.
D. According to a flow table, packets can be forwarded based on only the MAC address and IP
address.
131. Which of the following steps are necessary to configure OSPF on a Huawei router?
A. Configuration of a router ID.

B. Enabling of an OSPF process.
C. Specifying an OSPF area.
D. Configuration of the network segments within each area.
132. Which of the following statements are true about the dynamic MAC address table?
(Multiple Answers)**
A. After a device is reset, an interface card is hot swapped, or an interface card is reset, the
saved entries on the device or interface card are not lost.
B. Dynamic MAC address entries are obtained by learning the source MAC addresses of
packets received by an interface and can be aged out.
C. After a device is reset, an interface card is hor swapped, or an interface card is reset,
dynamic MAC address entries on the device or interface card are lost.
D. You can obtain the number of users communicating on an interface by checking the number
of specified dynamic MAC address entries.
133. According to the command output shown in the figure, which of the following
statements are true?**
#
Port trunk allow-pass vlan 2 to 4094
#
A. GigabitEthernet0/0/1 does not allow packets of VLAN 1 to pass through

B. GigabitEthernet0/0/1 allows packets of VLAN 1 to pass through
C. To configure GigabitEthernet0/0/1 as an access interface, first run the undo port trunk allow-
pass vlan all command.
D. To configure GigabitEthernet0/0/1 as an access interface, first run the undo port trunk allow-
pass vlan 2 to 4094 command.
134. Which of the following are the stable states of OSPF neighbor relationships?
A. Down
B. 2-way
C. Full
D. Attempt
135. A Layer 2 switch works at the data link layer. As such, it can identify MAC addresses
in data frames, forward data based on MAC addresses, and record mappings between
MAC addresses and interface numbers in its MAC address table.
True
False
136. In RSTP mode, interfaces in the Discarding state discard received data frames but
maintain the MAC address table based on received data frames.
True
False
137. A router that runs OSPF can enter the Full state only after link state database (LSDB)
synchronization is completed.**
True
False
138. For the Versatile Routing Platform (VRP), the login timeout period can be set only on
a VTY interface.**
True
False
139. Refer to the grapic. OSPF is used on four routers that are in the same area and on
the same network segment. In this scenario, OSPF selects one DR and multiple BDRs to
ensure backup.
True
False
140. A hybrid can be connected to either a user host or a switch.**
True
False
141. The tree topology is a hierarchical star topology, facilitating network expansion of
this topology is that faults on a node at a higher layer are more severe.
True
False
142. ACLs on AR G3 series routers, support configuration and auto sequences.**
True
False
143. More than two switches can be stacked into one logical device.
True
False
144. What is the protocol of RA (Router Advertisement) packet which is used in IPv6
stateless address auto-configuration?**
A. ICMPv6
B. IGMPv6
C. TCPv6
D. UDPv6
145. An administrator wishes to manage the router in the remote branch office, which
method can be used?
A. Telnet
B. FTP
C. Console Connection
D. DHCP
146. Which of the following commands can switch a view from the system view to the
user view?
A. System-view
B. Router
C. Quit
D. User view
147. Which of the following statements is true about the OSPF backbone area?
A. All areas can act as the backbone area.

B. Area 0 is the backbone area
C. All routers in the backbone area are ABRs
D. When more than two routers run OSPF, the backbone area must be deployed.
148. What is the broadcast address corresponding to 200.200.200.200/30?
A. 200.200.200.255
B. 200.200.200.203
C. 200.200.200.200
D. 200.200.200.252
149. How does an access port process data frames?**
A. The access port send tagged packets.

B. The access port replaces the VLAN tag of the data frames and then forwards them.
C. The access port removes the VLAN tag of the data frames and then forwards them.
D. The access port adds the PVID to the data frames and then forwards them.
150. Which of the following is not an open API of Huawei controllers?**
A. RESTful
B. NETCONF
C. AAA
D. Openflow
151. A company applies for a class C IP address for subnetting. It has six branches and
the largest branch should have 26 hosts. What would be an appropriate subnet mask for
the largest branch?
A. 255.255.255.0
B. 255.255.255.128
C. 255.255.255.192
D. 255.255.255.224
152. Which of the following bridge IDs cannot exist in configuration BPDUs sent by a
switch?**
A. 0 00-01-02-03-04-CC
B. 2048 00-01-02-03-04-CC
C. 4096 00-01-02-03-04-CC
D. 8192 00-01-02-03-04-CC
153. Refer to the following configuration of a switch interface. Which of the following
statements is false?**
#
Port trunk pvid vlan 100
Port trunk allow-pass vlan 100 200
#
A. If the VLAN tag carried in a data frame is 100, the switch removes the VLAN tag before
sending the data frame.
B. The link type of the interface is trunk
C. If the VLAN tag carried in a data frame is 200, the switch removes the VLAN tag before
D. If the interface receives data frames without VLAN tags, the switch needs to tag the data
frames with VLAN 100.
154. On the Huawei VRP, what is the default preference of different route types, in
descending order?
A. Direct > Static > RIP > OSPF

B. Direct > OSPF > Static > RIP
C. Direct > OSPF > RIP > Static
D. Direct > RIP > Static > OSPF
155. An ACL of a router has the following rules: rule deny tcp source 192.168.2.0
0.0.0.255 destination 172.16.10.2 0.0.0.0.
Which of the following statements is/are true?
A. All TCP packets whose source IP address is 192.168.2.1 and destination IP address is
172.16.10.2 match this rule.
B. All TCP packets whose source IP address is 192.168.2.1 and destination IP address is
172.16.10.1 match this rule.
C. All TCP packets whose source IP address is 172.16.10.2 and destination IP address is
192.168.2.0 match this rule
D. All TCP packets whose source IP address is 172.16.10.2 and destination IP address is
192.168.2.1 match this rule
156. On the network shown in the figure, no gateway is configured for host A, and host B
has the ARP cache entries corresponding to the gateway. If the *ping 11.0.12.1*
command is run on host A, which of the following statements is true?
A. No data packet is sent from host A.
B. The destination MAC address of data frames sent by host A is MAC-C
C. The destination MAC address of data frames sent by host A is MAC-B
D. The destination IP address of data packets sent by host A is 11.0.12.1

157. Which of the following IPv6 addresses can be abbreviated ass
2FFF:DAC:ABEF::CDAAA:732?
A. 2FFF:0DAC:ABEF:0000:0000:0000:CDAA:0732
B. 2FFF:0DAC:ABEF:0000:0000:CDAA:0732
C. 2FFF:0DAC:ABEF:0000:0000:0000:CDAA:7320
D. 2FFF:DAC0:ABEF:0000:0000:0000:CDAA:0732
158. What is the number range of a basic ACL?
A. 2000-2999
B. 3000-3999
C. 4000-4999
D. 6000-6031
159. What is the default interval for ending OSPF Hello packets on a broadcast network?
A. 10s
B. 20s
C. 30s
D. 40s
160. Which of the following statements does not correctly describe Python?
A. In general, Python executes code from top to bottom
B. Python supports automatic indentation, which can be ignored during code writing
C. Use comments when writing code to help readers understand the code. A comment starts
with #
D. Print () is used to output the contents in brackets.
161. How many bits are there in an IPv6 address?
A. 32
B. 64
C. 96
D. 128
162. Which of the following is not a common device deployed on a data communication
network?
A. Router
B. Switch
C. Firewall
D. Agile Controller
163. A company has 50 private IP addresses. The administrator uses NAT to connect the
company network to the public network. However, the company has only one public IP
address that is not fixed. Which of the following NAT models meets the requirements?
A. Static NAT
B. Basic NAT
C. Easy IP
D. NAPT
164. What function does Ctrl+Z have in the VRP system?
A. Returns from the system view to the user view
B. Exits the current view
C. Exits the interface view
D. Exits the console Interface view
E. Returns from any view to the user view.
165. Network Address and Port Translation (NAPT) allows multiple private IP addresses
to be mapped to the same public IP address through different port numbers. Which of the
following statements about port numbers in NAPT is true?
A. The mappings between port numbers and private IP addresses must be manually configured
B. Only the port number range needs to be configured
C. No port number needs to be configured.
D. An ACL is required to allocate port numbers.

166. The last option field (option) of an IPv4 packet is a length variable and optional field.
What is the maximum length of this field?
A 40B
B. 60B
C. 20B
D. 10B
167. Assume that Telnet has been configured on a specific device, the IP address for
logging in to the device is 10.1.1.10, the Telnet username is admin, and the password is
Huawei@123. Which of the following methods can be used to log in to the device through
telnetlib?
A. telnetlib.Telnet(10.1.1.0)
B. telnetlib.Telnet(10.1.1.0,admin)
C. telnetlib.Telnet(10.1.1.0,admin,Huawei@123)
D. telnetlib.Telnet(10.1.1.0,23,admin,Huawei@123)
168. How many TCP connections will be established when FTP is used to transfer files?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
169. Which SNMP version focuses on two main aspects, namely security and
administration. The security aspect is addressed by offering both strong authentication
and data encryption for privacy. The administration aspect is focused on two main parts,
namely notification originators and proxy forwarders.
A. SNMPv1
B. SNMPv2
C. SNMPv2c
D. SNMPv3
170. Which of the following statements is true about the root bridge election of STP?
A. If the bridge priorities of devices are the same, the device with the largest MAC address
becomes the root bridge
B. The device with the largest bridge priority becomes the root bridge
C. The device with the smallest bridge priority becomes the root bridge.
D. If the bridge priorities are the same, the device with the largest number of ports become the
root bridge.
171. The network administrator creates VLAN 10 on the Layer 3 switch and configures an
IP address for the virtual interface of VLAN 10. When the display ip interface brief
command is run to view the interface status, the command output indicates the VLANIF
10 is in Down state. Which of the following operations needs to be performed to restore
VLANIF 10?
A. Run the undo shutdown command on VLANIF 10
B. Add any physical interface to VLAN 10
C. Add a physical interface in Up state to VLAN 10
D. Add a trunk interface in Up state to VLAN 10
172. Refer to the display startup command output shown in the figure on an AR2200
router. Which of the following statements about the command output is false?
A. The running configuration file is not saved
B. The system file used for the current startup is ar2200-v200r003c00spc200.cc
C. The system file for next startup cannot be modified
D. The startup system software <startup-software-name> command can be used to modify the
system software for next
173, Refer to the following display interface command output on a device. Which of the
A. The IP address of the interface is 10.0.12.2/24
B. The working rate of the interface is 1 Gbit/s
C. The MTU of the interface is 1000 bytes
D. The MAC address of the interface is 00e0-fc22-4fff
174. Which of the following statements regarding link state database and routing table of
a “single” OSPF area are correct?
A. The link state databases that all routers build are identical
B. The link state databases that all routers build are different.
C. The routing tales that all routers calculate are different.
D. The routing tables that all routers calculate are identical
175. In which of the following network types does OSPF need to elect the DR and BDR?
A. Broadcast
B. Point-to-point (P2P)
C. NBMA
D. Point-to-multipoint (P2MP)
176. Which of the following elements are included in a routing table?
A. Destination/Mask
B. Protocol
C. Cost
D. Next hop address
E. Interface
176 Segment routing (SR) can be used to define an explicit path. Nodes on a network
only need to maintain SR information to deal with the real-time and rapid development of
services. What are the characteristics of SR?
A. SR supports smooth evolution of the existing network by extending existing protocols (such
as IGPs)
B. SR supports oth the controller’s centralized control mode and forwarders’ distributed control
mode, providing a balance between the two modes.
C. SR uses the source routing technology to support fast interaction between the network layer
and upper layer applications
D. SR uses IP forwarding and routers do not need to maintain another label forwarding table.
177. Which of the following WLAN security policies support open link authentication?
A. WPA
B. WPA2-PSK
C. WPA2-802.1X
D.WEP
178. An ACL rule is as follows. Which of the following IP addresses can be matched by
the permit rule? Rule 5 permit ip source 10.0.1.0.0.0.254.255.
A. 10.0.1.2
B. 10.0.2.3
C. 10.0.3.4
D. 10.0.4.5
179. An administrator wants to update the VRP software version on a Huawei router.
Which of the following methods are available?
A. The administrator configures a Huawei router as an FTP client and transmits the VRP
software through FTP
B. The administrator configures a Huawei router as an FTP server and transmits the VRP
software through FTP
C. The administrator configures a Huawei router as a TFTP server and transmits the VRP
software through TFTP
D. The administrator configures a Huawei router as TFTP client and transmits the VRP software
through TFIP
180. In STP, which of the following items may affect the selection of the root switch?
A. Switch Priority
B. Switch port ID
C. Switch interface bandwidth
D. Switch MAC address
E. Switch IP address
181. Which of the following sources of routes can be obtained by a router?
A. Direct routes
B. Dynamic Routes
C. Static routes
D. Summary routes
182. Which of the following VRP comments can be used to enter area 0 view?
A. [Huawei] ospf area 0

B. [Huawei-ospf -1] area 0
C. [Huawei - ospf - 1] area 0.0.0.0
D. [Huawei - ospf -1] area 0 enable
183. Following a failure of services in the network, an administrator discovered that the
configuration in one of the enterprise routers had been changed. What actions can be
taken by the administrator to prevent further changes?
A. The administrator should limit access by setting the login privilege of users to level 0
B. The administrator should configure AAA to manage user authorization on the router.
C. The administrator should configure an ACL to allow only the administrator to manage the
router.
D. The administrator should configure port security on the router
184. Which of the following statements are true about the OSPF neighbor status?
A. The master/slave relationship of OSPF is formed in the ExStart state

B. The sequence number of DD packets is determined in the Exchange state
C. In the Exchange state, routers send DD packets that briefly describe link state information to
each other to describe the content of the local link state database (LSDB)
D. After LSDB synchronization is completed, the router state changes to Full.
185. Which of the following statements about the “S” field in the MPLS packet header are
true?
A. The field indicates whether there are other labels behind the current label. 0:Yes; 1: No.
B. The field indicates whether there are other labels behind the current label 1:Yes; 0:No.
C. The “S” field exists in each MPLS packet header.
D. The “S” field is 1 bit long in frame mode and 2 bits long in cell mode.
186. The following figure shows the display interface Eth-Thrunk 1.100 command output
on a router. Which of the following statements about the command output are true?
187. All interfaces on a router running OSPF must belong to the same area.
True
False
188. CAPWAP controls tunnels and data tunnels use the same port number
True
False
189. You can run the “pwd” and “dir” commands on the Versatile Routing Platforms
(VRP) to view file information in the current directory.
True
False
189. STAs can discover a WLAN only when APs send Beacon frames.
True
False
190. With SNMP, an NMS can only display the device running status but cannot deliver
configurations.
True
False
191. If the transport-layer protocol is UDP, the value of the “Protocol” field at the network
layer is 6.
True
False
192. You can run the user-interface maximum-vty command to configure the maximum
number of users who can log in to the device through Telnet simultaneously.
True
False
193. By default, all SNMP versions (SNMPv1, SNMPv2c, and SNMPv3) are supposed on
Huawei AR G3 series routers.
True
False
194. In the SDN architecture, the orchestration layer is used to deploy services based on
user intents. OpenStack works at the service orchestration layer.
True
False
195. After a switch restarts, static MAC address entries saved on the switch remain in the
MAC address table
True
False
196. The CAPWAP protocol defines the communication standard between ACs and APs.
Which of the following statements about CAPWAP is true?
A. CAPWAP is an application-layer protocol based on TCP transmission

B. APs encapsulate user data packets using CAPWAP and send them to an AC
C. To reduce the load on APs, CAPWAP uses a tunnel to transmit both control and data
packets
D. To establish a CAPWAP tunnel, a fit AP can discover an AC only by broadcasting panels
197. What is the main function of DHCP Discover packets?
A. The client sends DHCP Discover packets to search for the DHCP server,
B. The client send DHCP Discover packets for requesting to confirm the configuration or renew
the lease time of the IP address.
C. The DHCP Discover packet carries various configuration information
D. The DHCP server send DHCP Discover packets to respond DHCP Requested packets.
198. Which layer of the OSI reference model does the PPP protocol define?
A. Presentation layer
B. Data Link Layer
C. Network layer
D. Application layer
199. Which of the following statements about routers is false?
A. A router works at the network layer

B. A router cannot isolate broadcast domains
C. A router can forward IP packets
D. A router can function as a gateway
200. Assume that an OSPF-enabled router has no loopback interface configured. What
would be used as the router ID?
A. The smallest IP address of a physical interface on the router (if configured)

B. The biggest IP address of a physical interface on the router (if configured)
C. The IP address of the router's management interface (if configured)
D. The preference of the router
201. Which of the following protocols is not a file transfer protocol?
A. FTP
B. TFTP
C. SFTP
D. HTTP packet
202. Which of the following OSPF packets can ensure LSA update reliability?
A. LSU
B. LSR
C. LSACK
D. DD
203. Which of the following OSPF versions is specific to IPv6?
A. OSPFv1
B. OSPFv2
C. OSPFv3
D. OSPFv4
204. Refer to the figure. Which of the following statements is true?
A. Host A and Host B cannot communicate with each other because the mask lengths of their IP
addresses are different.
B. Host A can ping Host B successfully
C. The broadcast addresses of Host A and Host B are the same.
D. Host A and Host B can communicate with each other only when the mask lengths of their IP
addresses are the same.
205. An authenticator router has been configured with two domains named “Area1” and
“Area2”, following which a user is created with the username “huawei” and the password
“hello” for authentication. Which domain does this user belongs to?
A. Area1 domain
B. Area2 domain
C. default domain
D. default_admin domain
206. Which of the following statements is true about direct routes?
A. The priority of the direct route is lower than that of the dynamic route
B. The priority of the direct route is lower than that of the static route
C. The administrator needs to manually configure the destination network and next-hop address
for the direct route.
D. The direct route has the highest priority.
207. What is the value of the Type field in RSTP configuration BPDUs?
A. 0x00
B. 0x01
C. 0x02
D. 0x03
208. When a router is powered on, the router reads the configuration file saved in the
default save directory to get itself initialized. If the configuration file does not exist in the
default save directory, what does the router use to initialize itself?
A. New configuration file

B. Initial configuration file
C. Default parameters
D. Current configuration file.
209. On the network shown in the figure, which router is elected as the BDR?
A. Router A
B. Router B
C. Router C
D. No BDR
210. Which of the following statements about Layer 2 Ethernet switches is false?
A. They can learn MAC addresses

B. They need to modify layer 3 headers of packets before forwarding them.
C. They forward Ethernet frames based on their Layer 2 headers
D. They operate at the Data link layer
211. In the figure, bridge IDs of SWA, SWB, SWC and SWD have been marked. After the
stp root secondary command is run on SWD, which switch will be selected as the root
bridge?
A. SWA
B. SWB
C. SWC
D. SWD
212. Which of the following packets is used by an AP to proactively declare its SSID so
that STAs can obtain the SSID of the WLAN?
A. Probe
B. Beacon
C. Join
D. Discovery
213. Which of the following is the default port number of the Telnet server?
A. 21
B. 22
C. 23
D. 24
214. Which of the following is not the reason why RSTP can increase the convergence
speed?
A. P/A mechanism
B. Edge port
C. Quick transition between root port states
D. The Forward Delay timer is canceled
215. On the switching network shown in the figure, all switches are STP-enabled. When
the network topology is stable, the interval for sending configuration BPDUs can be
changed on switch so that the interval on SWD changes?
A. SWA
B. SWB
C. SWC
D. SWD
216. Which of the following fields exist in both IPv6 and IPv4 packet headers?
A. Source Address
B. Destination Address
C. Version
D. Next Header
217. Which of the following statements about VLAN design and planning on campus
networks are true?
A. Allocate consecutive VLAN IDs to ensure proper use of VLAN resources

B. Reserve a specific number of VLANs for future use
C. Preferentially assign VLANs based on MAC addresses. This is the most commonly used
method for VLAN assignment
D. Preferentially assign VLANs based on ports. This is the most commonly used method for
VLAN assignment
218. Which of the following are features of the OSPF protocol?
A. Routing loops are likely to occur

B. Triggered update is supported
C. The shortest path is calculated based on the number of Hops
D. Area division is supported.
219. On the network shown in the figure, SWA and Router A are connected through two
links. The two links are aggregated in manual load balancing mode, and the number of
the aggregated interface is 1. If the aggregated link needs to tag outgoing packets with
VLAN 100, which of the following configurations need to be performed on Router A?
A. Interface GigabitEthernet0/0/1
Eth-trunk 1
#
#
B Interface Eth-Trunk1
Undo portswitch
#
Interface Eth-Trunk1.100
dot1q termination vid 100
ip address 10.0.12.2.255.255.255.0
arp broadcast enable
#
C. Interface Eth-Trunk1
Port link type trunk
#
Interface GigabitEthetnet0/0/1
Eth-trunk 1
220. Which of the following fields in an IPv4 header are related to fragmentation?
A. Identification
B. Flags
C. Fragment Offset
D. TTL
221. Which of the following IEEE 802.11 standards support the 5 GHz frequency band?
A. 802.11a
B. 802.11n
C. 802.11ax
D. 802.11g
222. Which of the following statements are true about the shortcut keys of the Versatile
Routing Platforms (VRP)?
A. Press *CTRL+C* to stop operation of the current command

B. Press *CTRL+Z* to return to the user view
C. Press the left cursor key to move the cursor one bit leftwards
D. Press *TAB* to view the latest command
223. Which of the following modes are supported by link aggregation?
A. Manual load balancing mode

B. LACP mode
C. Hybrid mode
D. Manual active/standby mode
224. Link aggregation is a common technique in enterprise networks. Which of the

following description is the advantages of link aggregation?
A. Improves link bandwidth

B. Implements load sharing
C. Improves network reliability
D. Facilitates data copy for analysis
225. Which of the following are types of network communication?
A. Chatting with friends through internet messaging softwares ( Facebook Messenger,

WhatsApp, etc.)
B. Watching an online video on your computer
C. Downloading emails from a mailbox to your computer
D. Accessing the official website of a company on your computer
226. SNMP packets are transmitted by UDP

True
False
227. In RSTP, an edge port becomes a common STP port after receiving a configuration BPDU.
True
False
228. The working mode of an AP cannot be changed

True
False
229. Fat Aps can provide wireless user access, wireless user authentication, and service data
forwarding without an AC.
True
False
230. Loops may cause broadcast storms on a Layer 2 network.
True
False
231. When a host uses the stateless address autoconfiguration solution to obtain an IPv6
address, the host cannot obtain the DNS server address.
True
False
232. For STP, the default root path cost of the root bridge is 0
True
False
233. If a network address is 10.1.1.0/30, which of the following addresses is the broadcast
address?
A. 10.1.1.1
B. 10.1.1.2
C. 10.1.1.3
D. 10.1.1.4
234. Which of the following authentication modes does/do not require a user name and a
password?
A. authentication-mode hwtacacs
B. authentication-mode local
C. authentication mode none
D. authentication mode hwtacacs
235.The administrator performs the configuration shown in the figure on a router, and a host is
connected to G1/0/0 of the router. Which of the following statements is true about the IP
address obtained by the host through DHCP?
A. The IP address obtained by the host belongs to the 10.10.10.0/24 network segment.
B. The IP address obtained by the host belongs to the 10.20.20.0/24 network segment.
C. The host cannot obtain an IP address.
D. The IP address obtained by the host may belong to the 10.10.10.0/24 or 10.20.20.0/24
network segment.
236. In the LCP negotiation phase of the PPP protocol, which of the following packets is sent if
all the parameters sent by the peer end are accepted?
A. Configure-Request
B. Configure-Ack
C. Configure-Nak
D. Configure-Reject
237. Which of the following is used to identify the coverage of an AP?

A. ESS
B. BSS
C. SSID
D. BSSID
238. Refer to the graphic. Both switches are operating using STP. With exception to those
shown, all other default parameters have been maintained. Which port will be blocked?
A. Port G0/0/1 of switch A

B. Port G0/0/2 of switch B
C. Port G0/0/1 of switch B
D. Port G0/0/2 of switch A
239. What is the total length of the VLAN frame defined by IEEE 802.1Q?
A. 1Byte
B. 2Byte
C. 3Byte
D. 4Byte
240. A user logged into a VRP supported device through telnet, but when attempting to
configure the device, found that he is unable to use the system-view command to enter the
system-view.
What are the possible reasons for this? (Choose two)
A. The device"s VTY interface only provides permission for some telnet users to run the system-
view command.
B. The user"s telnet software restricts use of this command.
C. The user"s privilege level is lower than the level associated with the system-view command.
D. The system-view command privilege level is lower than the level associated with the user.
241. The administrator wishes to update the configuration file of an AR2200 router using a USB
cable.
How can this be achieved? (Choose all that apply.)
A. The administrator should connect the USB cable between the terminal and the mini USB port
of the AR2200 router.
B. The administrator should connect the USB cable between the terminal and the USB port of
the AR2200 router.
C. The AR2200 router cannot support configuration updates through a USB cable.
D. The administrator should install the mini USB drivers on the terminal after connecting the
USB.
242.
Refer to the configuration output. The administrator configured the device using the commands
in the configuration output. Regarding these commands, which statement is false?
A. The administrator wishes to enable management through the console interface.
B. Following configuration, the administrator cannot manage the device remotely.
C. A user that logs-in through the console interface is assigned the highest privilege level.
D. The password of a user logged in through console is "˜cipher huawei2012".
243. The PPPoE session establishment process can be divided into which stages? (Choose
two).
A. Discovery stage
B. DHCP stage
C. PPPoE Session stage
D. PPP connecting stage.
244. To establish multiple PPP point-to-point connections in the Ethernet network, a PPPoE
server establishes connections with multiple PPPoE clients on one Ethernet port. How does
PPPoE differentiate between each connection?
A. MAC address.
B. IP address and MAC address
C. MAC address and ppp-id
D. MAC address and session-id
245. Two routers have established a point-to-point network using PPP. The administrator has
configured the routers to run OSPF in the same area with the same router ID, what will behavior
will occur as a result of the configuration?
A. The routers will build a neighbor relationship even though both routers are using the same
router ID.
B. VRP will notify of a router ID conflict between the two routers.
C. The routers will build an adjacency even though both routers are using the same router ID.
D. The routers will not send hello packets to each other because they are using the same router
ID.
246. What is the function of the "ip address ppp-negotiate" command?

A. Enables the function of requesting for an IP address from the peer device.
B. Enables the function of accepting the request for an IP address from the remote device.
C. Enables the function of statically allocating IP addresses to the peer.
D. None of the above
247. In the PPP protocol, which of the following encryption algorithms is used by CHAP?
A. DES
B. MD5
C. AES
D. None
248. As shown in the figure below, all switches enable the STP protocol and keep other
configurations in their default state. When the network is stable, which of the following
statements are correct? (Multiple Choice)
• Both ports of SWB are in Forwarding state

• SWB is the root bridge in this network
• SWA is the root bridge in this network
• Both ports of SWC are in Forwarding state
Question was not answered
249. What is the total length of the IPv6 address in bits?

• 96
• 64
• 32
• 128
250. The IPv4 address assigned by the network administrator to a host in the network is
192.168.1.1/28. How many hosts can be added to the network where this host is located?
• 12
• 15
• 13
• 14
251. All ports on the root bridge switch are designated ports.
• True
• False
252. As shown in the figure below, host A and host B cannot communicate.
• True
• False
253. Which of the following statements about IPv6 multicast addresses are correct?
(Multiple Choice)
• Provide redundant functions for services
• Realize load sharing of services
• The packet whose destination address is a multicast address will be sent to the
nearest network interface in the sense of routing
• Multicast addresses and unicast addresses use the same address space
254. What is the number range of advanced ACL?

• 3000-3999
• 2000-2999
• 4000~ ～ 4999
• 6000~6031
255. The basic header length of IPv6 packets is a fixed value.

• True
• False
256. In which of the following network types does the OSPF protocol need to elect DR
and BDR? (Multiple choice)
• Point to multipoint
• NBMAcorrect
• Point-to-point type
• Broadcast type
257. By default, how long is the lease period of the IP address assigned by the DHCP
server?
• 12h
• 1h
• 24h
• 18h
258. When deploying ACL on Huawei devices, which of the following description is
correct? (Multiple choice)
• ACL can match the TCP/UDP port number of the message, and can specify the
range of port numbers
• The same ACL can be called under multiple interfaces
• When ACL defines rules, it can only proceed in the order of 10, 20, and 30
• ACL cannot be used to filter OSPF traffic, because OSPF traffic does not use UDP
protocol encapsulation
• When calling ACL under the interface, it can only be applied to the outbound direction
259. In the network shown in the figure below, when the OSPF neighbor status is stable,
what is the neighbor status of Router B and Router C?
• Attempt
• 2-way
• Fu11
• Down
260. Which parameter is used in the spanning tree protocol for root bridge election?
• Port ID
• Bridge priority
• Root path cost
• Bridge ID
261. MIB (Management Information Base) is a virtual database that exists only in NMS.
• True
• False
262. Now it is necessary to implement a Python automation script Te1net to the device to
view the device running configuration. Which of the following statements is wrong?
• Telnetlib can achieve this function.
• Use telnet.Telnet (host) to connect to the Telnet server.
• can use telnet.write(b"display current-configuration
") to input the command to view the current configuration of the device.
• telnet.c1ose() is used after a command entered every time, the function is that the
user waits for the switch to return information.
263. The network administrator of a certain company wants to uniformly divide the users
who often access the company network from different switches into VLAN 10 when they
frequently change office locations. Which of the following methods should be used to
divide VLANs?
• Divide VLAN based on protocol
• Divide VLAN based on MAC address
• Divide VLAN based on port
• Divide VLAN based on subnet
264. The picture shows the display startup information of AR2200 router. Regarding
these information, which of the following statement is wrong?
• next system startup file system can use the command "startup system software <startup-
software-name>" to modify
• The running configuration file is not saved
• The system file used by the device this time is ar2220-v200r003c00spc00.cc
• The system file cannot be modified when the device is started next time
265. The administrator plans to implement route backup by configuring static floating
routes, what is the correct way to achieve this?
• The administrator needs to configure different metric values for the main static route and
the standby static route
• The administrator needs to configure different TAGs for the main static route and the
standby static route
• The administrator only needs to configure two static routes
• The administrator needs to configure different protocol priority values for the
main static route and the standby static route
266. There are hosts in a private network that need to access the Internet. In order to
achieve this requirement, which of the following configurations should the administrator
do on the edge router of the network? (Multiple Choice)
• Default route
• STP
• DHCP
• NAT
267. Which of the following descriptions about Trunk port and Access port is correct?
• Trunk port can only send untagged frames
• Access port can only send untagged frames
• Access port can only send tagged frames
• Trunk port can only send tagged frames
268. Which of the following statements about the division of OSPF protocol area is
wrong?
• Area 0 is the backbone area, and other areas must be connected to this area
• The LSDBs in the routers in the same OSPF area are completely consistent
• Dividing OSPF areas can reduce the LSDB scale of some routers
• Only ABR can be used as ASBR
269. NFV (Network Functional Virtualization), network function virtualization realizes the
deployment of network applications in a software-based way.
• True
• False
270. UDP cannot guarantee the reliability of data transmission, and does not provide
functions such as message sequencing and flow control. It is suitable for flows with low
transmission reliability requirements but high transmission speed and delay
requirements.
• True
• False
271. The administrator cannot log in to the Huawei router through Telnett, but other
administrators can log in normally, so which of the following are the possible reasons?
(Multiple Choice)
• The authority level of the administrator user account has been modified to
0correct
• The administrator user account has been disabled
• The Te1net service of the AR2200 router has been disabled
• The administrator user account has been deleted
272. VRP operating system commands are divided into 4 levels: access level, Monitoring
level, Configuration level, and Management level. Which level can run various business
configuration commands but cannot operate the file system?
• Configuration level
• Monitoring level
• Access level
• Management level
273. Using a traditional landline to make calls is a way of network communication.
• True
• False
274. In the VRP interface, use the command delete vrpcfg.zip to delete a file, which must
be emptied in the recycle bin to completely delete the file.
• True
• False
275. In what state does the OSPF protocol determine the master-slave relationship of DD
packets?
• ExStart
• Full
• 2-way
• Exchange
276. The following two configuration commands can realize the router RTA to the same
destination 10.1.1.0 routing master and backup backup.
【 RTA 】 ip route-static 10.1.1.0 24 12.1.1.1 permanent
【 RTA 】 ip route-static 10.2.2.0 24 13.1.1.1.

• True
• False
277. In the network shown in the figure below, the bridge ID of the switch has been
marked. Enter the command stp root secondary on the SWD switch, and which of the
following switch will become the root bridge of this network?
• SWC
• SWA
• SWB
• SWD
278. If the Length/Type of an Ethernet data frame = 0x8100, which of the following
statements is correct?
• There must be an IP header in the upper layer of this data frame
• This data frame must carry VLAN TAG
• There must be a UDP header in the upper layer of this data frame
• There must be a TCP header in the upper layer of this data frame
279. FAT AP can independently complete wireless user access, wireless user
authentication, and business data forwarding without AC.
• True
• False
280. There is no channel overlap in the 14 available frame segments in the 185.2.4 GHz
frame segment.
• True
• False
281. In the WLAN network architecture, what is terminal equipment that supports the
802.11 standard called?
• Client
• AC
• STA
• AP
282. Which of the following characteristics does the OSPF protocol have? (Multiple
Choice)
• Easy to produce routing loops
• Calculate the shortest path by number
• Support the division of areas
• Trigger an update
283. Which of the following statement about static routing is wrong?

• Cannot automatically adapt to changes in network topology
• Manual configuration by the network administrator
• Low system performance requirements
• Routers need to exchange routing information
284. In the network shown in the figure below, which of the following commands can be
entered on the router to enable host A to ping host B? (Multiple choice)
• RTA: ip route-static 10.0.12.5 255.255.255.252 11.0.12.2
RTB: ip route-static 10.0.12.1 255.255.255.252 11.0.12.1
285. Which of the following IPv4 addresses can be used by a host to directly access the
Internet?
• 192.168.1.1/24
• 172.32.1.1/24
• 172.16.255.254/24
• 10.255.255.254/24
286. The switch becomes a logical switch after stacking and clustering, and Eth-Trunk
across physical devices can be deployed to improve network reliability.
• True
• False
287. What is the TPID value defined by IEEE802.1Q?

• 0x8200
• 0x7200
• 0x8100
• 0x9100
288. As shown in the figure below, assuming the other configurations of the switch are
kept in the default state, which port of the following switch will become the designated
port? (Multiple Choice)
• SWC's G0/0/1
• SWA's G0/0/3
• SWC's G0/0/2
• SWB's G0/0/1
289. The management of users by NAS devices is based on domains. Each user belongs
to a domain, and a domain is a group of users who belong to the same domain.
• TRUE
• FALSE
290. Which of the following fields does the MPLS header include? (Multiple choice)
• EXP
• TTL
• Label
• Tos
291. Huawei ARG3 series routers have all SNMP versions (SNMPv1, SNMPv2c and
SNMPv3) by default.
• True
• False
292. IPv6 address 2001: ABEF: 2240E: FFE2: BCC0: CD0: DDBE: 8D58 cannot be
abbreviated.
• True
• False
293. Which state does the OSPF protocol use to indicate that the adjacency relationship
has been established?
• Full
• 2-way
• Attempt
• Down
294. The tracert diagnostic tool in Huawei routers is used to track the data forwarding
path.
• TRUE
• False
295. The routing table output information of a router is shown in the figure. Which of the
following statements is correct? (Multiple choice)
• the local router to the NextHop of 10.0.2.2 is 10.0.21.2
296. Which of the following OSPF protocol packets can ensure the reliability of LSA
updates?
• LSACK
• DD
• LSU
• LSR
297. Which of the following advantages does router-on-a-stick achieve inter-VLAN

routing intercommunication?
• Reduce the number of equipment
• Reduce the use of IP addresses
• Reduce the number of link connections
• Reduce routing table entries
298. If STP is not turned on for the network composed of switches, there must be a Layer
2 loop.
• TRUE
• False
299. The switch receives a unicast data frame. If the destination MAC of the data frame
can be found in the MAC table, the data frame will be forwarded from the corresponding
MAC port.
• TRUE
• False
300. The output information of the link aggregation port of a certain switch is as follows.
If you want to delete Eth-Trunk 1, which of the following commands is correct?
• undo interface Eth-trunk 1
• inte GigabitEthernet 0./0/2
Undo eth-trunk
Quit
Undo eth-trunk
Quit
inte GigabitEthernet 0./0/2
Undo eth-trunk
Quit
Undo eth-trunk 1
Undo eth-trunk
Quit
301. Which information of the data frame does the VLANIF interface use to determine
whether to perform Layer 2 or Layer 3 forwarding?
• Destination MAC
• Source MAC
• Destination port
• Source IP
302. If the value of the Type/Length field of an Ethernet data frame is 0 x 0800, the length
of the upper layer message header carried by this data frame is in the range of 20-60B.
• TRUE
• False
303. When using FTP for file transfer, how many TCP connections will be established?
• 2
• 1
• 3
• 4
304. What are the user authentication methods that can be deployed in wlan? (Multiple
choice)
• Portal authentication
• MAC authentication
• Radius certification
• 802.1X authentication
305. In order to join the wireless network STA needs to obtain wireless network
information first. Which of the following messages is used by the STA to actively obtain
the SSID information?
• Probe
• Join
• Discovery
• Beacon
306. On the network shown in the figure, if all routers run OSPF, which router is elected as the
BDR?
A. Router B
B. Router A
C. Router D
D. Router C
307. What percentage does the DHCP client expect to send the lease renewal message for the
first time?
A. 0.5
B. 0.875
C. 1
D. 0.25
308. As shown in the preceding VTY configuration, the user privilege level is set to 3.
True
False
309. What frequency does IEEE 802.11n support? (Multiple Choice)
A. 2.5GHz
B. 2.4GHz
C. 5GHz
D. 6GHz
310. In IPv4 networks, AP supports static and DHCP methods to obtain IP addresses.
True
False
311. Which field is added to the IPv6 packet header than the IPv4 packet header?
A. Destination Address
B. Flow Label
C. Version
D. Source Address
312. Telnetlib is a module that implements the Telnet protocol that comes with Python.
True
False
313. The controller is the core component of SDN. The controller connects to the device through
the southbound interface. Which of the following belong to the controller southbound protocol?
(Multiple Choice)
A. SNMP
B. PCEP
C. OpenFlow
D. NETCONF
314. As shown in the figure below, the wrong statement is:
acl number 2000]
rule 5 deny source 200.0.12.00.0.0.7 rule 10permit source200.0.12.00.0.0.15 #

interface GigabitEthernetO/0/1 traffic-filteroutbound acl2000
A. The host whose source IP address is 200.0.12.4 cannot access the Internet
B. The host whose source IP address is 200.0.12.2 cannot access the Internet
C. The host whose source IP address is 200.0.12.8 cannot access the Internet
D. The host whose source IP address is 200.0.12.6 cannot access the Internet
315. When the Trunk port send the data frame, how to deal with?
A. When the VLAN ID is the same as the PVID of the port and is a VLAN ID allowed by the port,
remove the Tag and send the message
B. When the VLAN ID is different from the PVID of the port, the data frame is dropped
C. When the VLAN ID is different from the PVID of the port, replace it with PVID forwarding
D. When the VLAN ID is different from the PVID of the port, strip off the TAG and forward
316. How many bits are there in the VLAN ID in the VLAN format defined by IEEE802.1Q?
A. 12
B. 6
C. 10
D. 8
317. In the network shown in the figure below, the output information of switch A is shown in
the figure. Then in the MAC address table of switch A, which interface does the MAC address
of host B correspond to?
A. GigabitEthernet 0/0/3
B. GigabitEthernet0/0/2
C. Eth-Trunk 1
D. GigabitEthernet0/0/1
318. The number of VLANs that can be created using the commands "vlan batch 10 20" and
"vlan batch 10 to 20" respectively is
A. 11 and 11
B. 11 and 2
C. 2 and 2
D. 2 and 11
319. Which of the following statements about the default route are correct? (Multiple Choice)
A. If the destination address of the message cannot match any other routing entries in the
routing table, the router will forward the message according to the default route
B. There must be a default route in the routing table of any router
C. The default route can only be manually configured by the administrator
D. In the routing table, the default route appears as a route to the network 0.0.0.0 (the mask is
also 0.0.0.0)
320. There are multiple route entries to the same destination network in the routing table. These
routes are called:
A. Sub-optimal routing
B. Multi-path routing
C. Default route
D. Equal cost routing
321. Using the command mkdir test in the VRP operating platform, the system will create a
directory named test.
A. True
B. False
322. Which of the following statements about RA and RS in IPv6 are correct? (Multiple Choice)
A. RS is used to reply address prefix information
B. RA is used to request address prefix information
C. RS is used to request address prefix information
D. RA is used to reply address prefix information
323. Which of the following SNMP packets are sent to the NMS by the Agent on the managed
device?
A. Set-Request
B. Get-Request
C. Get-Next-Request
D. Response
324. What is the maximum negotiation rate supported by the IEEE 802.llg standard?
A. 300Mbps
B. 150Mbps
C. 54Kbps
D. 1200Mbps
325. Which WLAN security policies support the link authentication method of Open mode?
(Multiple Choice)
A. WPA2-802.IX
B. WPA2-PSK
C. WEPcorrect
D. WPA
326. When AP and AC are on different Layer 3 networks, what method is recommended for AP
to discover AC? (Multiple Choice)
A. Broadcasting method
B. DNS
C. DHCP
D. Manually specified on AP
327. Wi-Fi 6 is also known as the IEEE 802.11ax standard.

True
False
328. A trunk interface allows frames from multiple VLANs including VLAN 4096.
True
False
328. If the packet matches the deny rule in an ACL, the packet is discarded.
True
False
329. SDN requires the control and forwarding planes to be separated.

True
False
330. UDP does not guarantee data transmission reliability and does not provide packet sorting
and traffic control functions. It is suitable for the traffic that has low requirements for data
transmission reliability, but high requirements for the transmission speed and delay.
True
False
331. The data link layer uses PPP encapsulation. The IP addresses of the two ends of the link
can be in different network segments.
True
False
332. Fit Aps can work independently of an AC.

True
False
333. On the network shown in the figure, Host A and Host B cannot communicate with each
other.
True
False
334. The source IP address or source interface of the CAPWAP tunnel can be manually
specified on an AC.
True
False
335. The administrator wishes to change name of the router. Under which view should the
administrator be in order to achieve this?
A. User-view
B. System-view
C. Interface-view
D. Protocol-view
336. On the network shown in the following figure, VLAN 2 is created on SWA and SWB, and
interfaces on the two switches connected to hosts are configured as access interfaces and
added to VLAN 2. G0/0/1 on SWA and G0/0/2 on SWB are configured as trunk interfaces to
allow packets from all VLANs to pass through. Given this, which of the following configurations
needs to be performed to ensure that the two hosts can communicate with each other?
A. Create VLAN 2 on SWC.

B. Configure G0/0/1 on SWC as a trunk interface that allows packets from VLAN 2 to pass
through.
C. On SWC, configure G0/0/1 as a trunk interface that allows packets from VLAN 2 to pass
through, configure G0/0/2 as an access interface, and set the PVID to 2.
D. Create VLAN 2 on SWC, and configure G0/0/1 and G0/0/2 as trunk interfaces that allow
packets from VLAN 2 to pass through.
337. Which of the following commands can be used to permanently delete the old device
configuration file < config.zip > ?
A. delete /force config.zip
B. delete /unreserved config.zip
C. reset config.zip
D. clear config.zip
338. Which of the following types of MAC address entries will never age out?
A. Static MAC address entries
B. Device MAC address entries
C. Dynamic MAC address entries
D. Interface MAC address entries
339. Which of the following statements is true about the OSPF DR?
A. The DR is elected in preemption mode.
B. The DR must be the device with the highest priority on the network.
C. If the priority of an interface is 0, the device where the interface resides cannot become the
DR.
D. A router with a larger router ID is elected as the DR.
340. Refer to the figure. Which of the following statements is true?
A. Host A and Host B cannot communicate with each other because the mask lengths of their IP
addresses are different.
B. Host A can ping Host B successfully.
C. The broadcast addresses of Host A and Host B are the same.
D. Host A and Host B can communicate with each other only when the mask lengths of their IP
addresses are the same.
341. Refer to the graphic. Both switches are operating using STP. With exception to those
shown, all other default parameters have been maintained. Which port will be blocked?
A. Port G0/0/1 of switch A.

B. Port G0/0/2 of switch B.
C. Port G0/0/1 of switch B.
D. Port G0/0/2 of switch A.
342. A company has 50 private IP addresses. The administrator uses NAT to connect the
company network to the public network. However, the company has only one public IP address
that is not fixed. Which of the following NAT modes meets the requirement?
A. Static NAT
B. Basic NAT
C. Easy IP
D. NAPT
343. What is the size (in bits) of the bridge priority defined in STP?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 8
D. 16
344. UDP is connectionless. As such, which of the following must be used to ensure
transmission reliability?
A. Internal protocol
B. Application layer protocol
C. Network layer protocol
D. Transmission Control Protocol
345. Which of the following is a dynamic IGP routing protocol?

A. BGP
B. OSPF
C. Static
D. Direct
346. After a switch receives a unicast data frame, it searches the MAC address table for the
destination MAC address. Which of the following statements is false?
A. If the MAC address cannot be found, the switch floods the frame.
B. If the MAC address is found and the port corresponding to the MAC address in the MAC
address table is not the port through which the switch receives the frame, the switch forwards
the frame.
C. If the MAC address is found and the port corresponding to the MAC address in the MAC
address table is the port through which the switch receives the frame, the switch discards the
frame.
D. If the MAC address cannot be found, the switch discards the frame.
347. Which of the following statements about Length/Type = 0x8100 in an Ethernet data frame
is/are true?
A. The data frame must carry a VLAN tag.
B. The upper layer of the data frame must have an IP header.
C. The upper layer of the data frame must have a TCP header.
D. The upper layer of the data frame must have a UDP header.
348. Assuming that an administrator is running the command shown in the figure on an AR2200
router, which of the following statements about the configuration is true?
A. To clear the configuration file for next startup, select Y.

B. The configuration file for next startup is retained.
C. To clear the configuration file for next startup, select N.
D. The saved configuration file will be replaced by the running configuration file.
349. What is the main function of the DNS protocol?

A. Domain name resolution
B. File transfer
C. Remote access
D. Email transmission
350. According to the figure, which of the following statements is true?
A. Host A and host B cannot obtain the MAC address of each other
B. Host A can successfully ping host B.
C. The broadcast address of host A and host B are the same.
D. The following ARP cache entry exists on host A: 10.0.12.5 MAC-B
351. Which of the following statements about Layer 2 Ethernet switches is false?
A. They can learn MAC addresses.
B. They need to modify Layer 3 headers of packets before forwarding them.
C. They forward Ethernet frames based on their Layer 2 headers.
D. They operate at the data link layer.
352. Which of the following statements about the prefix segment is false?
A. Prefix segments need to be manually configured.
B. A prefix segment identifies the prefix of a destination address.
C. Prefix segments are flooded from one device to others through an IGP. After the flooding, the
prefix segments are visible and effective globally.
D. Prefix segments can be automatically allocated by an IGP.
353. Which of the following statements is true about the Forward Delay timer of STP?
A. Improve the STP convergence speed.
B. Reduce the interval for sending BPDUs.
C. Prevent temporary loops.
D. Delay is required when a port transitions between Blocking and Disabled
E. Improve the configuration BPDU lifetime, ensuring that the configuration BPDUs can be
forwarded to more switches.
354. Which of the following functions is/are supported by LCP in the PPP protocol?
A. Check the link loop.
B. Negotiate the authentication protocol.
C. Negotiating the network layer address.
D. Negotiate the maximum receive unit (MRU).
355. Which of the following are not layers in the TCP/IP model?
A. Application layer
B. Session layer
C. Presentation layer
D. Network layer
E. Transport layer
356. In the following figure, Router A and Router B have established an OSPF neighbor
relationship. The OSPF process ID and area ID of Router A are 1 and 0, respectively. Given
this, which of the following configurations can be made on Router A in order to advertise the
route to the network segment where HOST A resides to Router B?
A. ospf 1
Area 0.0.0.0
Network 192.168.1.2 0.0.0.0
#
B. ospf 1
Area 0.0.0.0
Network 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.255
#
C. ospf 1
Area 0.0.0.0
Network 192.168.0.0 0.0.255.255
#
D. ospf 1
Import-route direct
#
357. Which of the following port status may exist on an STP-enabled switch?
A. Forwarding
B. Listening
C. Discarding
D. Disabled
358. Refer to the following figure showing the RADIUS configuration of a router. Which of the
following statements about the configuration are true?
A. The IP address of the authentication server is 200.0.12.1.
B. The IP address of the authorization server is 200.0.12.1.
C. The IP address of the accounting server is 200.0.12.1.
D. The source IP address of the RADIUS packets sent by the router is 200.0.12.2.
359. In the network shown in the figure, which of the following configurations can forbid host A
to access the HTTP service of host B and forbid host B to access the FTP service of host A?
A. acl number 3000

Rule 5 deny tcp source 100.0.13.0 0.0.0.255 destination 100.0.12.0 0.0.0.255 destination-port eq www
#
Acl number 3001
Rule 5 deny tcp source 100.0.12.0 0.0.0.255 destination 100.0.13.0 0.0.0.255 destination-port eq ftp
#
#
B. acl number 3000
Rule 5 deny tcp source 100.0.13.0 0.0.0.255 destination 100.0.12.0 0.0.0.255 destination-port eq www
#
Acl number 3001
Rule 5 deny tcp source 100.0.12.0 0.0.0.255 destination 100.0.13.0 0.0.0.255 destination-port eq ftp
#
Traffic-filter outbound acl 3000
#
C. acl number 3000
Rule 5 deny tcp source 100.0.13.0 0.0.0.255 source-port eq www destination 100.0.12.0 0.0.0.255
#
Acl number 3001
Rule 5 deny tcp source 100.0.12.0 0.0.0.255 source-port eq ftp destination 100.0.13.0 0.0.0.255
#
#
D. acl number 3000
Rule 5 deny tcp source 100.0.13.0 0.0.0.255 source-port eq www destination 100.0.12.0 0.0.0.255
#
Acl number 3001
Rule 5 deny tcp source 100.0.12.0 0.0.0.255 source-port eq ftp destination 100.0.13.0 0.0.0.255
#
#
360. On the network shown in the figure, which of the following configurations can enable host A
to access the Internet but prevent host B from accessing the Internet?
A. acl number 2000

Rule 5 deny source 100.0.12.0 0.0.0.255
#
#
B. acl number 2000
Rule 10 deny source 100.0.12.0 0.0.0.255
#
#
C. acl number 2000
Rule 10 deny
#
#
D. acl number 2000
Rule 5 deny source 100.0.12.0 0.0.0.255
Rule 10 permit
#
#
361. SNMP packets are encapsulated in TCP packets

True
False
362. The VLAN ID cannot be set to 0.
True
False
363. Refer to the following configuration of a switch interface. Which of the following statements
is false?
A. The link type of the interface is hybrid.

B. If the VLAN tag carried in a data frame is 100, the switch removes the VLAN tag before
C. If the interface receives data frames without VLAN tags, the switch needs to tag the data
frames with VLAN 100.
D. If the VLAN tag carried in a data frame is 200, the switch removes the VLAN tag before
364. UDP is connectionless. As such, which of the following must be used to ensure
transmission reliability?
A. Internet protocol
B. Application layer protocol
C. Network layer protocol
D. Transmission Control Protocol
365. As shown in the following figure, a router has two routing entries in its routing table. If the
router needs to forward packets destined for 9.1.4.5, which route will be selected and why?
A. The first route is selected as the optimal route because OSPF has a higher preference.
B. The second route is selected as the optimal route because the RIP route has a smaller cost.
C. The second route is selected as the optimal route because the rate of Ethernet0 is faster
than Serial0.
D. The second route is selected as the optimal route because this route is more accurate than
the first one for the destination address 9.1.4.5.
366. As shown in the figure, which of the following network devices can be used to implement
communication between host A and host B?
A. Hub
B. Layer 2 switch
C. Router
D. --
367. Which of the following port states is not included in Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP)?
A. Forwarding
B. Learning
C. Discarding
D. Blocking
368. Which of the following OSPF packets can be sent to request the local lacking LSAs?
A. HELLO
B. LSR
C. LSU
D. LSACK
369. Which of the following descriptions about STP designated ports is correct?
A. Each bridge can have only one designated port.
B. Designated ports are responsible for sending BPDU to connected network segments.
C. Designated ports represent the path leading to the root switch.
D. Designated ports forward frames destined for the root switch.
370. What are the characteristics of interface-based VLAN assignment?

A. When a host is moved, you do not need to reconfigure the VLAN to which the host belongs.
B. When a host is moved, you need to reconfigure the VLAN to which the host belongs.
C. VLAN tags are added to data frames based on IP addresses carried in data frames.
D. VLAN IDs are assigned based on the protocol type and encapsulation format of data frames.
371. Which of the following operations is performed immediately after a Fit AP obtains the AC’s
IP address?
A. Apply for the configuration file.
B. Establish CAPWAP tunnels.
C. Upgrade the system software.
D. Download the configuration file.
372. A routing entry contains multiple fields. Which of the following statements about these
fields is false?
A. Proto: indicates the source of a route
B. Destination/Mask: indicates the address and mask length of the destination network or host.
C. NextHop: indicates the address of the local interface corresponding to a route.
D. Pre: indicates the preference value of a routing protocol.
373. As shown in the figure, which of the following ports will be in blocking state?
A. G0/0/3 of SWB
B. G0/0/1 of SWC
C. G0/0/2 of SWC
D. G0/0/3 of SWA
374. Refer to the graphic. The switch is operating using STP. All default parameters have been
maintained. Which port will be assigned a designated port role?
A. G0/0/1 of switch A.
B. G0/0/2 of switch A.
C. E0/0/1 of the hub.
D. E0/0/2 of the hub.
375. Which of the following are basic parameters for configuring a static route?
A. Destination network
B. Next-hop IP address
C. Outbound interface
D. MAC address of the outbound interface
376. What are the advantages of using DHCP to allocate IP addresses?

A. DHCP provides heavy workload and is difficult to manage.
B. DHCP can prevent IP address conflicts.
C. IP addresses can be reused.
D. If the configuration information changes, for example, the DNS server address changes, the
administrator only needs to modify the configuration information on the DHCP server, facilitating
unified management.
377. Refer to the following display version command output on a device. Which of the following
statements are true?
A. The device has been running for 1 minute
B. The VRP version of the device is VRP5.
C. The standby MPU of the device is running properly.
D. The device name is Huawei.
378. Which of the following commands can be used to query OSPF configurations of a device?
A. display current configuration
B. in the OSPF protocol view:
Display this
C. dis ip routing-table
D. display ospf peer
379. Which of the following are the features of the default VLAN setting in a switch
configuration?
A. The default VLAN cannot be deleted manually.
B. By default, all ports on switches are member ports of a default VLAN.
C. A default VLAN must be created before a port is allocated to a VLAN.
D. The IP address configured for a switch is applied only to a member port in the default VLAN.
380. Which of the following statements regarding link-state database and routing-table of a
“single” OSPF area are correct?
A. The link-state databases that all routers build are identical.
B. The link-state databases that all routers build are different.
C. The routing-tables that all routers calculate are different.
D. The routing-tables that all routers calculate are identical.
381. Which of the following packets are OSPF packets?

A. HELLO
B. LSR
C. LSU
D. LSA
382. If the IPv4 address of a host on a LAN is 192.168.1.1/30, the host will process IP packets
with specific destination IP addresses. Which of the following IP addresses may be the
destination IP addresses?
A. 192.168.1.1
B. 192.168.1.2
C. 192.168.1.3
D. 255.255.255.255
87.
#
Ip pool pool 1
Network 10.10.10.0 mask 255.255.255.0
Gateway list: 10.10.10.1
#
Refer to the configuration output. The administrative wishes to configure the DHCP server pool
in order to assign an IP address to the customer’s terminal device. Which command should be
included in the configuration to provide the minimal lease period for IP addresses?
A. Dhcp select relay
B. Lease day 1
C. Lease 24
D. Lease 0

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1. When a host uses the IP address 192.168.1.

2 to access the Internet, NAT must be

2. The priority of static routes cannot be manually specified.

3. IPv6 uses NS and NA packets to perform duplicate address detection (DAD).

11. Which of the following parameters is not used by Advanced ACL?

A. display ospf neighbor

A. The preference value of a static route is in the range 1 to 255.

17. What is the default step of the ACLs on AR G3 series routers?

A. The specified port allows all VLAN IDs to pass through.

23. Which of the following is the preference of a direct route?

24. What is the number range of an advanced ACL?

31. Which of the following is not included in the routing table?

A. There are 6 collision domains in the network.

A. Port-based VLAN assignment

39. Which type of IPv6 address is FE80::2E0:FCFF:FE6F:4F36?

A. time-range am9topm5 08:00 to 17:00 daily

C. time-range am9topm5 08:00 to working-day

D. time-range am9topm5 08:00 to 17:00 off-day

A. The next hop of the route from R1 to 10.0.0.1 is 10.0.12.2.

following interfaces can data frames be sent? (Multiple Answers)**

A. Access interface of a switch

46. Which of the following parts compose SNMP? (Multiple Answers)**

Ip route-static 10.0.2.2 255.255.255.255 10.0.12.2

A. VLAN assignment by geographic area

49. Which of the following statements are incorrect? (Multiple Answers)**

A. MAC address authentication

A. An IP address needs to be configured on a loopback interface of each router before

A. Routers forward data packets based on source IP addresses.

60. Which of the following are layer 2 ACLs? (Multiple Answers)**

A. rule 10 permit l2-protocol arp

A. MAC -A, 11.0.12.1

64. When an Ethernet frame is received by an interface on a Layer 2 Ethernet switch,

A. Source MAC address

72. The broadcast address of the network segment 192.168.1.0/25 is 192.168.1.128.

A. Only interface priorities are compared

A. Hybrid interfaces do not require PVIDs.

A. dot1q termination vid 1

A. A higher port bandwidth indicates a smaller port cost.

A. acl number 2000

A. RSTP uses a synchronization mechanism to prevent temporary loops

A. The data frame is an Ethernet II frame

A. SNMPv3 packets can be authenticated and encrypted.

95. Virtualization is the foundation of Network Functions Virtualization (NFV). Which of

A. Multiple VMs can concurrently run on a single physical server.

97. Virtualization is the foundation of Network Functions Virtualization (NFV). Which of

A. Multiple VMs can concurrently run on a single physical server.

A. The control plane implements interaction of routing protocols between devices.

A. The STP-enabled port transitions from Disabled to Blocking.

A. The switch forwards the data frame through Eth0/0/2

103. On a Layer 2 WLAN, STAs use an AC as their gateway.

A. The switch broadcasts the data frame on all interfaces.

107. Which of the following is a valid default route configuration?**

A. [Huawei] ip route-static 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.1.1

A. inte GigabitEthernet 0/0/1

A. Source IPv4 Address

A. Communication failures occur between the user and the router.

A. Communication failures occur between the user and the router.

121. Which of the following information is displayed when an entered command is

A. Error:Incomplete command found at ‘^’ position

124. Which of the following statements about MPLS labels is false?

A. The router discards the data packets destined for 11.0.0.0/8.

A. VLAN assignment by geographic area

130. Typical network forwarding is based on routing tables. OpenFlow-capable switches

A. Press CTRL+C to stop operation of the current command